Pmb Posted July 27, 2015 Report Posted July 27, 2015 Where did the last sum come from? Try letting an = bn = 1, m = 2. Then you have 2/(x + 1) = 0 which has no solution. However your sum gives x = -1 which makes the sum undefined. Quote
CraigD Posted July 27, 2015 Report Posted July 27, 2015 Where did the last sum come from? Try letting an = bn = 1, m = 2. Then you have 2/(x + 1) = 0 which has no solution. However your sum gives x = -1 which makes the sum undefined.You’re right. There needs to be an additional condition attached, to read: [math]\sum_{n=1}^{m} \frac{1}{a_nx+b_n} \,=\, 0[/math] has solution [math]x=-\frac{\sum_{n=1}^{m} b_n}{\sum_{n=1}^{m}a_n}[/math] when [math]m[/math] is even and [math]\frac{b_i}{a_i} \not = \frac{b_j}{a_j}[/math] for all [math]1 \le a,j \le m[/math], [math]i \not = j[/math]. You could say I omitted this for brevity, or out of laziness – the distinction is a fine one. :) Quote
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