sanctus Posted July 2, 2007 Report Posted July 2, 2007 I have question but it is hard to explain, I'll give my best. consider a spatially isotropic and homogenuos universe (ie FRW-universe), with a distribution function: [math]f(x,\tilde{p}^i)[/math] where the tilde denotes the comoving momenta and there is no 0-component of the enrgy-momentum 4-vector because one expresses it via g(x)(p,p)=-m^2 (ie. there are only 7 degrees of freedom). Now, since one is in a spatially homogenous and isotropic universe, the distribution function can only depend the norm of the momentum which I note for clarity P.Sot far everything is clear to me, but now for the definition of P the book says:[math]P=\sqrt{\delta_{ij}p^ip^j}=\sqrt{a^2\gamma_{ij} \tilde{p}^i \tilde{p}^j}[/math]where [math]\gamma_{ij}[/math] is the tensor in the FRW metric, ie:[math]g_{\mu\nu}dx^\mu dx^\nu =a^2\left(-dt^2+\gamma_{ij}dx^i dx^j\right)[/math]Hence a is the expansion factor. Also the p's without tilde are the physical coordinates. Now, why is P given by a minkowski metric if defined in physical coordinaties and by FRW metric in comoving coordinates? Hope someone understands my problem. Quote
sanctus Posted August 1, 2007 Author Report Posted August 1, 2007 I eventually asked my prof...I should have read more carefully the book, one chose an orthonormal basis there... I write this just in case someone wondered about this but never posted... Quote
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