sanctus Posted January 30, 2005 Report Posted January 30, 2005 Just a question, when usually one says a particle has spin 3/2 it actually means that the particle has a certain probability to have spin: -3/2, -1/2, 1/2, 3/2 ? Is this is right?I think it is right because when you represent a particle with spin s you write wave function with 2s+1 components.... Thanks to anyone who knows!
maddog Posted January 31, 2005 Report Posted January 31, 2005 Just a question, when usually one says a particle has spin 3/2 it actually means that the particle has a certain probability to have spin: -3/2, -1/2, 1/2, 3/2 ? Is this is right?I think it is right because when you represent a particle with spin s you write wave function with 2s+1 components.... Thanks to anyone who knows! I remember this from my QM class. Basically, I would agree with you. I vaguely remember a Clebsch-Gordon fucntion (this is hazy) whose computation give these values.You typically think of the excited particles as being these. Both Muon, and Baryon. Maddog
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