Ben Posted September 13, 2009 Report Posted September 13, 2009 So I have been reviewing my differential geometry notes, and there is an equality I don't quite get. Suppose that [math]M[/math] is a [math]C^{\infty}[/math] manifold. Then for any [math]m \in M[/math] we have a vector space tangent at this point called, reasonably enough, a tangent space. Denote this by [math]T_mM[/math] and suppose that [math]v \in T_mM[/math]. Further suppose that the point [math]m \in M[/math] can be defined relative to the set of local coordinate functions [math]\{x^i\}[/math]. Then the basis vectors for this space will be the linear operators [math]\frac{\partial}{\partial x^i}[/math], and [math]v \in T_mM[/math] can be written as [math]v=\sum\nolimits _i \alpha^i \frac{\partial}{\partial x^i}[/math] (where the [math]\{\alpha^i\}[/math] is a set of scalars). My question, then, is this: I am told that [math] vx^i = \alpha^i[/math], and I am having trouble extracting this equality. I worked by analogy: Suppose [math]V[/math] is a vanilla vector space with inner products. Let the set [math]\{e_j\} [/math] denote the basis vectors. Now the inner product of an arbitrary vector [math]v = \sum \nolimits_j \alpha^j e_j [/math]with any basis vector will be denoted by [math](v,e_i) = \sum \nolimits_j(a^j e_j, e_i)=\sum \nolimits_j a^j( e_j, e_i)[/math] (since inner products are bilinear) hence [math] (v, e_i) = \sum \nolimits_j a^j(e_j,e_i) = \sum \nolimits_j a^j \delta _{ij} = a^j[/math] where the Kronecker delta is 1 when i = j, and zero otherwise. Obviously, in the present case we may not assume an inner product, and moreover, the [math]\{x^i\}[/math] are coordinate functions, not basis vectors, so my analogy might usually be expected to fail in the present case. I expect I could do this once, but premature senility seems to have set in........ Quote
Ben Posted September 13, 2009 Author Report Posted September 13, 2009 Ah well, it is nothing so romantic as premature senility, rather just a garden-variety stupidity. Doh! So here, after a few minutes of scribbling.... If [math]v \in T_mM = \sum \nolimits_j \alpha ^j \frac{\partial}{\partial x^j}[/math] then [math] vx^i = \sum \nolimits_j \alpha^j \frac{\partial}{\partial x^j} x^i = \sum \nolimits_j \alpha^j \delta_{ij} = \alpha^i[/math] (since both coordinate functions and basis vectors are independent by construction). Quote
Qfwfq Posted September 13, 2009 Report Posted September 13, 2009 Gosh I got here almost in time to tell you that! C'mon Ben, you've no idea of the blunders that we can make, I stepped into here just after recognizing one of my very own. :hihi: Quote
Jay-qu Posted September 14, 2009 Report Posted September 14, 2009 I see the maths fairly plainly, but I am struggling to interpret this physically. So v is a tangent to the manifold at a point, and the [math]x^i[/math] are just local coordinates. So then the inner product of the two [math]vx^i[/math] gives you the set of scalars [math]\alpha^i[/math] but what are these scalars? Quote
Qfwfq Posted September 14, 2009 Report Posted September 14, 2009 Concening Ben's thread on differential forms, a scalar function over the manifold is just a 0-form. A (covariant) vecotr field can be defined by the manner he describes 1-forms there and is a differential operator; more precisely the vector turns into a 1-form when applied to a scalar function and contracted with [imath]dx^{\mu}[/imath]. The differential: [math]df(p)=\frac{\partial f(p)}{\partial x^{\mu}}dx^{\mu}[/math] can be regarded as a specific case with the vectors components all being 1 and the [imath]dx^{\mu}[/imath] are the contravariant basis vectors. One can regard the gradient of a function as being a covariant vector that gives an exact 1-form who's integral is the function (up to a constant). Well i'm just blabbering from my vague memories..:D Of course the point [imath]p[/imath] is represented in a given chart by the coordinates so [imath]f(p)[/imath] translates into a function of them. Under a change of chart [imath]f(p)[/imath] becomes a different function, such that the two have the same value for corresponding coordinates, IOW at the same point [imath]p[/imath]. Quote
sanctus Posted September 14, 2009 Report Posted September 14, 2009 Jay, the easy interpretation is that [math]{\alpha_i}[/math] are just the coefficients of the decomposition of [math]v[/math] with respect to the basis [math]\frac{\partial}{\partial x^i}[/math], which is a local basis, but still a basis ;-)...But I guess, you knew that and where more interested in what it is mathematically, described by Qfwfq... Quote
Qfwfq Posted September 14, 2009 Report Posted September 14, 2009 Actually I realize now there seems to be an ambiguity:So then the inner product of the two [math]vx^i[/math] gives you the set of scalars [math]\alpha^i[/math] but what are these scalars?yeah, this refers to the vector's components, which are not scalars in the tensorial sense; they are just elements of the field over which the vector spaces are defined. Linear combinations and all that.... Quote
Ben Posted September 14, 2009 Author Report Posted September 14, 2009 So then the inner product of the two [math]vx^i[/math] gives you the set of scalars [math]\alpha^i[/math] but what are these scalars?Jay, hope the essence of this question has been answered by Q and Sanctus (my thanks to them for illuminating my somewhat opaque contribution). However, I have to say that [math]vx^i[/math] is not an inner product. It not even a set of inner products! I admit that my notation was perhaps confusing, but I cannot find a better one. So, if we recognize that the [math]x^i[/math] are the coordinates curves that pass through the point [math]m \in M[/math], and that the basis vectors are the directional derivatives constrained to "be" on these curves, then by [math]vx^i[/math] I meant that, given this basis and the decomposition that Sanctus mentioned, then when we offer to our generic vector [math]v[/math] a curve, he in return offers us the component of the decomposition relative to that curve. Perhaps a better notation might have been something like [math]v(x^i)[/math] though this is not without its faults; we want the express the above as the evaluation of our vector as a scaling of the basis vectors on this curve. Trouble is this looks like the vector is itself a function, and yet it seems to make no sense to talk about the components as being the image of the coordinates. Or maybe [math]v|_{x^i}[/math]? Which would read "[math]v[/math] evaluated on [math]x^i[/math]". I have a comment or 2 about Q's nice offering, but now I have to do some work....... Quote
Jay-qu Posted September 15, 2009 Report Posted September 15, 2009 That makes sense thanks guys. Quote
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