sanctus Posted November 24, 2009 Report Posted November 24, 2009 Hi all, probably an easy question if a given series tends to a limit value is its expectation the limit value? I tend to think not because it depends how it converges. The question arises from montecarlo method: Start from[math] E_f[h(x)]=\int h(x) f(x) dx[/math]then for [math](x_1,x_2,...x_m)[/math] generated from the density f approximate the above expectation (MC-approximation) as:[math]\bar{h}_m=\frac{1}{m}\sum_{j=1}^mh(x_j)[/math] and then by the strong law of large numbers [math]\bar{h}_m\stackrel{a.s.}{\to} E_f[h(x)][/math] somewhere in my notes I wrote then [math] E[\bar{h}_m]=E_f[h(x)] [/math]what i think is wrong in at least 2 ways:with respect to which density would [math]E[\bar{h}_m][/math] be calculated anyway? assuming that we calculate somehow [math]E[\bar{h}_m][/math], then the equal sign is still wrong, because [math]\bar{h}_m[/math] only tends to [math]E_f[h(x)][/math]. I.e for m big enough we could write [math] E[\bar{h}_m]\approx E_f[h(x)] [/math] So my conclusion is that it is wrong and should be written as:[math] \bar{h}_m\approx E_f[h(x)] [/math] Thoughts? Quote
sanctus Posted November 26, 2009 Author Report Posted November 26, 2009 Wow 97 views and none of someone good in statistics...;-) Or maybe it is just because I wrote unclearly... Quote
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