A23 Posted January 10, 2010 Report Posted January 10, 2010 I thought bout this but don't know if it is right ?: let an infinite potential [math]V_{x_0}(x)=\left\lbrace\begin{array}{ll} -\infty & \textrm{ if }x\in\{x_0-l,x_0+l\}\\0 & else\end{array}\right.[/math] suppose L>l, E<0 and the Schrödinger equation [math]-\frac{\hbar^2\partial^2}{2m\partial x^2}\Psi_0(x)+V_0(x)\Psi_0(x)=E\Psi_0(x)[/math] add [math]\underbrace{V_L(x)\Psi_0(x)}_{=0}[/math] [math]-\frac{\hbar^2\partial^2}{2m\partial x^2}\Psi_L(x)+V_L(x)\Psi_L(x)=E\Psi_L(x)[/math] add [math]\underbrace{V_0(x)\Psi_L(x)}_{=0}[/math] gives:[math]-\frac{\bar{h}^2\partial^2}{2m\partial x^2}(\Psi_0(x)+\Psi_L(x))+(V_0(x)+V_L(x))(\Psi_0(x)+\Psi_L(x))=E\underbrace{(\Psi_0(x)+\Psi_L(x))}_{\Psi(x)}[/math] hence [math]\Psi(x)[/math] is made of 2 separate blobs. If this wavefunction was constructed this way : put 1 particle and increase the central potential to infinity,could the particle tunnel from one to the other? Quote
SamSpeedo Posted January 10, 2010 Report Posted January 10, 2010 Looks good, don't cha haf ta close de bracket? Quote
A23 Posted January 10, 2010 Author Report Posted January 10, 2010 Sorry, but what means 'bracket' in your msg:a) some kind of parentheses ?:shrug: in some trousers a zipper ? Quote
sanctus Posted January 22, 2010 Report Posted January 22, 2010 QM is long time back for me, but I would say that Psi defined your way is kind of a superposition of two states (or better set of states). If this is right, then there would be no need for tunneling, I think. But, I repeat, QM is many years back, it may be complete BS what I said ;-) Quote
Pyrotex Posted January 22, 2010 Report Posted January 22, 2010 Sorry, but what means 'bracket' in your msg:a) some kind of parentheses ?:naughty: in some trousers a zipper ?Speedo was referring to the leftbrace and underbrace you used in your equations.And no, you do not have to "close" them with rightbrace's and overbrace's. Quote
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