erKa Posted August 26, 2010 Report Posted August 26, 2010 Have you still not read in the OP that it is the other way around? You keep barking up the wrong tree. In the case described in the OP polar orbits are the stable equilibrium (apart from their apogees and perigees, which we lack any inf to work out). The instable equilibrium is the equatorial case and all those in between will go toward some polar orbit....but if you just stated the only allowable stable orbit must be polar the only precession possible excluding universal entropic degeneration and any relavistic precession must be only due to an inverted conventional gyroscopical precession. I am not barking at the wrong tree but I am pissing onto the same tree you scrambled no way to go down :lol: Quote
Qfwfq Posted August 26, 2010 Report Posted August 26, 2010 ...but if you just stated the only allowable stable orbit must be polar the only precession possibleis if we assuming there isn't axial symmetry. Unfortunately, in this case, we would have to ask the OP what is meant by poles and equator. Sorry but I've no idea what you mean by "universal entropic degeneration" and "an inverted conventional gyroscopical precession". If you want ot explain them, start a new thread in Alternative Theories Forum otherwise you would have to give some adequate support for any claims you make. I am pissing onto the same treeExactly. This is not a welcome behaviour around here. Another word for it is trolling. Quote
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