Aethelwulf Posted August 16, 2012 Author Report Posted August 16, 2012 There may be a negative sign in there [math]-\frac{GM^2}{r_s} = M\phi[/math] depending on what classical textbook you might read. Usually, which I just remembered, there is often a negative sign for [math]-\frac{GM}{R} = \phi[/math] Quote
Aethelwulf Posted August 17, 2012 Author Report Posted August 17, 2012 (edited) Inertia can also be attributed to a rotational system - if we are dealing with a classical radius, then the angular momentum is not an intrinsic property as such when you would find when dealing with point-like systems. I just wanted to note a certain derivation for this post: [math]\frac{2GM^2}{Mc^2} = \frac{E_gr_s}{Mc^2} = \frac{2GM}{c^2} = \frac{E_gr_s}{Mc^2} = \frac{e^2}{Mc^2}[/math] for a classical radius. (edited for fixing of a mistake) Edited August 17, 2012 by Aethelwulf Quote
Pincho Paxton Posted August 17, 2012 Report Posted August 17, 2012 As I said however, you can search for the paper yourself, it is easy to find :) No, I mean that the search goes to a PDF that doesn't work. Quote
Aethelwulf Posted August 17, 2012 Author Report Posted August 17, 2012 No, I mean that the search goes to a PDF that doesn't work. When I search the paper, it works for me... strange. Try some other link --- if not, check your reader. Quote
Aethelwulf Posted August 17, 2012 Author Report Posted August 17, 2012 It's a good paper, go out your way to find it. Full of good info, especially the part about the self-energy of an electron, it is generally infinite in theory without any renormalization techniques. Quote
Aethelwulf Posted August 17, 2012 Author Report Posted August 17, 2012 Sorry, latexed a t^2 in there, which shouldn't be there if I am correctly doing these dimensions... I will fix it now. Quote
Aethelwulf Posted August 17, 2012 Author Report Posted August 17, 2012 nope I have done something wrong somewhere ... sorry about this. Quote
Aethelwulf Posted August 17, 2012 Author Report Posted August 17, 2012 (edited) Oh... I think I might have had it right, My brain is in a muddle right now... I should cancel the mass, if one was to simply multiply it on both sides of [math]\frac{E_gr_s}{Mc^2} = \frac{e^2}{Mc^2}[/math] thus the mass cancels, which leaves [math]\frac{E_gr_s}{c^2} = \frac{e^2}{c^2}[/math] What we really have is [math]\frac{Mc^2r_s}{c^2} \rightarrow Mr = \frac{e^2}{c^2}[/math] multiply the radius on both sides gives a rotational inertia [math]Mr^2 = \frac{e^2r}{c^2}[/math] In previous work, I derived from [math]M = \frac{r^3}{2Gt^2}[/math] one can get [math]2E_gt^2 = Mr^2[/math] This means that [math]2E_gt^2 = \frac{e^2r}{c^2}[/math] Is the gravitational energy rotational inertia in terms of the electric charge and the radius. Edited August 17, 2012 by Aethelwulf Quote
Aethelwulf Posted August 17, 2012 Author Report Posted August 17, 2012 Ok, I think that is me. If anyone see's a problem with this, please point it out. Quote
Aethelwulf Posted August 17, 2012 Author Report Posted August 17, 2012 I had to look for some justification on line there because it didn't look right, but my memory has somewhat refreshed on [math]Et^2[/math] being related to an inertial quantity. According to http://books.google.co.uk/books?id=MTdX4kZVREQC&pg=PA49&lpg=PA49&dq=inertia+-+energy+times+time+squared&source=bl&ots=yjZv6vursA&sig=IpA8tNOEgun1C8akYP6jq8t7XHw&hl=en&sa=X&ei=G5vfT_O-O-LP0QX4j9HLCg&sqi=2&ved=0CFsQ6AEwAQ#v=onepage&q=inertia%20-%20energy%20times%20time%20squared&f=false ...energy times [math]t^2[/math] is a thermal inertia parameter. It surely then is no coincidence it can be related directly to a rotational inertial quantity [math]Mr^2[/math], (or moment of inertia), which is usually given as [math]I = \sum_{i=1}^{N} M_ir^{2}_{i}[/math] Quote
Aethelwulf Posted August 17, 2012 Author Report Posted August 17, 2012 (edited) Here is a nice excerpt about the charge quantization method adopted by Motz http://encyclopedia2.thefreedictionary.com/Dirac-Zwanziger-Schwinger+quantization+condition What we have is [math]e\mu = \frac{1}{2}n\hbar c[/math] It seems to say that [math]\mu[/math] plays the role of a magnetic charge - this basically squares the charge on the left handside, by a quick analysis of the dimensions previously analysed. Edited August 17, 2012 by Aethelwulf Quote
Aethelwulf Posted August 17, 2012 Author Report Posted August 17, 2012 Here, referenced by Motz, you can see the magnetic charge is given as [math]g[/math], the electric charge of course, still given by [math]e[/math]. http://wdxy.hubu.edu.cn/ddlx/UpLoadFiles/File/2011070110535154942.pdf what we have essentially is [math]\frac{e\mu - e\mu}{4\pi} = n\hbar c[/math] where your constants in the paper have been set to natural units. In light of this, one may also see this must be derived from the Heaviside relationship [math]e = \sqrt{4\pi \alpha \hbar c}[/math] I say this, because it picked up a [math]4 \pi[/math] term. Quote
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