Challenge To The Special Theory Of Relativity

[xinhangshen]

This is Xinhang Shen. I am the author of the paper titled "Challenge to the special theory of relativity" on which I have disproved the special theory of relativity theoretically. Some people here still misunderstand the core of the paper which is very simple that average undergraduate students in physics can understand it:

 

The problem of STR is originated from the wrong concept that a clock directly measures time. Actually, a clock only records the number of cycles of its oscillator which is the product of time and frequency. The displayed time of a clock is the recorded number of cycles divided by a calibration constant.

 

In Newton's mechanics, both time and frequency are invariants of inertial reference frames, and therefore, the displayed time as the product of time and frequency is also an invariant of inertial reference frames. If we set the calibration constant to be the same as the frequency of the oscillator, the displayed time of a clock becomes time (i.e. the time of classical mechanics, absolute and universal). Thus, a clock measures time in classical mechanics.

 

However, in special relativity, the situation is completely different: the frequency of the clock's oscillator changes with the change of the inertial reference frame and is no longer the calibration constant of the clock, and thus the displayed time of the clock is no longer time (i.e. the time of special relativity). Thus, a clock in special relativity does not measure time (i.e. the time of special relativity).

 

Moreover, in special relativity, the displayed time of a clock as the product of time and frequency is still an invariant of inertial reference frames because the slowdown of the frequency (Transverse Doppler effect) cancels the dilation of time in the product of time and frequency after Lorentz Transformation to make the product unchanged. Therefore, the time of special relativity is no longer the physical time we use in observing physical phenomena measured with clocks (i.e. the displayed time of a clock), and thus special relativity is irrelevant to real physics. 

 

You can find the relationship between the time of classical mechanics and the time of special relativity in my paper which clearly tells you that all what special relativity does is just to redefine time and space to produce an artificial constant speed of light. That artificial speed of light is irrelevant to the real speed of light which I have proved still following Newton's velocity addition formula.

Edited May 2, 2016 by xinhangshen

[maheshkhati]

In my post of 2 june 2015 in same section, I have already proved that Special theory of relativity is mathematically wrong. I am just giving one mathematics from my paper in web site www.maheshkhati.com which proves that applied force is less than acting force in SR. 

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VERY IMPORTANT CALCULATION 1:- Force without acceleration, acceleration without force & applied force is less than acting force in SPECIAL THEORY OF RELATIVITY.

 

STEP 1:-This problem can easily be understood by following paradox.

{Before starting this paradox, I want to put one relativity formula’s given in standard book of relativity for example “Page no. 135 of Elements of special relativity” by Dr T.M. Karade, Dr K S Adhav & Dr Maya S Bendre.

In any frame, for force in X-direction by S.R.

      F_x = d/dt( y.  mo. u_x)  where y=(1-u²/c²)^-0.5

   So, after differentiation

F_x= y. mo. (du_x/dt) + y³. m_o. {u_x/c²}. (u . du/dt)  

 F_x= y. mo. a_x + y³. mo. {u_x/c²}. (u . a)  -----(A)

We know,  u²=u_x²+u_y²+u_z²    

So, after differentiation

       2 u. (du/dt) = 2.u_x (du_x/dt) +2.u_y (du_y/dt) + 2.u_z (du_z/dt)

      2 u. a = 2.u_x a_x +2.u_y a_y + 2.u_z a_z    

       u. a = u_x a_x + u_y a_y + u_z a_z    --------( :cool:

from (A) & ( :cool:

So, F_x=y. mo. a_x+y³ mo. (u_x/c²} (u_x a_x+u_y a_y+u_z a_z) ------(1)

This is general  equation of force in X-direction in S.R.

Now, Paradox:-

On frictionless platform, object is moving with constant velocity u_x in X-direction & only magnetic force is acting in Y-direction & there is acceleration in Y-direction only with velocity u_y.

(& F_z=0)

If we apply eq(1) to this case then result will be

       F_x= y³ mo. (u_x/c²} u_y a_y    ----------   as a_x=0  

  Or  F_x=F_ay  as this force is form due to ‘a_y’ & ‘u_y’ only

Mean’s even there is no magnetic force acting on object from outside in x-direction & no ‘a_x’ then also above force will act on object in +ve direction of x-axis due to ‘a_y’

Important point (1):-

Mean’s applied magnetic force on object in X-direction is 0 & acting force in X-direction is   Fx= y³ mo. (u_x/c²} u_y a_y+0 or F_ay+0=F_ay

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STEP 2:-Now, Force acting in X-direction is  F_x= y³ mo. (u_x/c²} u_y a_y or F_ay

Now, after this happen, very small magnetic force of same intensity

 -f_x = -y³ mo. (u_x/c²} u_y a_y or  -F_ay  start acting on object in direction opposite to above force (but velocity is still positive u_x) & cancel that above force.

Mean’s equation (1) becomes

  0=y. mo. a_x+y³ mo. {u_x/c²} (u_x a_x+u_y a_y) 

Or  0 =y. mo a_x. (1+ y²  {u_x²/c²} ) + y³ mo. (u_x/c²} u_y a_y =y. mo a_x. (1+ y²  {u_x²/c²} ) +F_ay

(Here as  F_ay= y³ mo. (u_x/c²} u_y a_y)

Mean’s  F_ay = y. mo. -a_x. (1+ y². {u_x²/c²} )

Mean’s there must be acceleration in –ve X-direction to fulfill above equation of S.R.

Now, see above equation carefully, it is of nature

     0= -f_x + F_ay

Important point (2):- Mean’s applied magnetic force on object in X-direction is -f_x & acting force in X-direction is  -f_x + F_ay = 0  or 0.

Here, resultant force in X-direction is zero but there is acceleration.

 

STEP3:- same things happen for +ve force in X-direction (for less than F_ay or more)

Now, I am generalizing above result.

Step 1 & 2 clearly shows that when we apply any magnetic force (F_mx) in X-direction on the object, actual force acting on object is more & that quantity is (F_mx+F_ay)

Similarly,

If we apply any magnetic force (F_my) in Y-direction on the object then actual force acting on object is more & that quantity is (F_my+F_ax)

This is completely complicated results, which says that applied force & acting forces on objects are different & more in S.R.

STEP4:- Force does work, consume energy, gain energy & we must know that energy cannot be created. It can be transferred only:-

From above setup it must be clear that energy get transfer from magnet to object but if applied force is less than acting force then energy gain by object will be more than energy loose by the magnet. Means due to more work done by more force for same displacement, more energy get generated.

HERE, more energy (& force) is the problem.

Where this additional energy (or force) does comes from?

There is no answer in S.R. for this problem.