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Posted
Consider 3 generations of humans -

 

First generation - Black man marries white woman

 

Second generation - Four genetic configurations are possible :

BB (Black) / Bw (Black) / wB (Black) / ww (white)

 

From this generation if one combination equals one offspring and the first three die due to infant mortality, only one (white) goes on to have offspring of its own.

 

If all subsequent offspring marry white persons, the family tree shifts from black to white.

 

Do you agree ?  :vava:

 

PS : What does this tell you about our racial antecedents ?  :innocent:

Posted

No, I don't agree, as there is no evidence I know of that suggests skin tone is a binary Mendelian trait as your proposition claims.  As such, it tells us nothing about our racial antecedents, whatever it is that you intend that to mean.  I suspect you know this to be the case.  Give me one example of a "white" and a "black" parent producing offspring that can be classified phenotypically as you have described.

Posted

No, I don't agree, as there is no evidence I know of that suggests skin tone is a binary Mendelian trait as your proposition claims.  As such, it tells us nothing about our racial antecedents, whatever it is that you intend that to mean.  I suspect you know this to be the case.  Give me one example of a "white" and a "black" parent producing offspring that can be classified phenotypically as you have described.

Yes, this misunderstanding reminds me of a rather dodgy limerick from my childhood about Mendelian processes:

 

There was a young woman named Starkey,

Who had an affair with a darkie.

The result of her sins was quadruplets, not twins,

One black, one white and two khaki.

 

But as you say it does not work like that with skin colour.:)

Posted

Yes, this misunderstanding reminds me of a rather dodgy limerick from my childhood about Mendelian processes:

 

There was a young woman named Starkey,

Who had an affair with a darkie.

The result of her sins was quadruplets, not twins,

One black, one white and two khaki.

 

But as you say it does not work like that with skin colour. :)

 

 

No, I don't agree, as there is no evidence I know of that suggests skin tone is a binary Mendelian trait as your proposition claims.  As such, it tells us nothing about our racial antecedents, whatever it is that you intend that to mean.  I suspect you know this to be the case.  Give me one example of a "white" and a "black" parent producing offspring that can be classified phenotypically as you have described.

 

I agree that the evaluation is merely not a binary combination. However if you are white there is absolutely no reason as to why all your ancestors should be white. Same for black people.

 

As a classic illustration consider the case of Cleopatra, who in spite of being of Macedonian descent was dark skinned. 

 

https://blog.oup.com/2010/12/cleopatra-2/

 

In this case we should remember her for her outstanding personality, not her skin color.  :sherlock:

Posted

I agree that the evaluation is merely not a binary combination. However if you are white there is absolutely no reason as to why all your ancestors should be white. Same for black people.

Can I assume that we agree that the premise in your opening post is implausible?  You seem to agree that skin color isn't a binary trait.  I don't understand what your point is.

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