petrushkagoogol Posted May 6, 2017 Report Posted May 6, 2017 Consider the following two statements - * All sunflowers have a similar structure.* I dislike Switzerland because it has no permanent capital. The former and the latter have an innate logic, although the latter seems more like bias, rather than logic. The former can be concisely expressed as computer logic, the latter can be easily understood by humans, but converting that into computer logic is another ball game. It would have to be defined for each object, and for a database of say 1000000 objects, 1000000 constants would have to be defined. i.e. A likes Switzerland, B does not, C does not, D does and so on. Does that define a constraint on the conversion of logic into computer logic, where the assertion has an inherent bias ? :vava: Quote
BrainJackers Posted May 8, 2017 Report Posted May 8, 2017 If there is a bias, it is not logic. It just may have some logic. You're not trying to convert logic into computer logic but a statement partially made out of logic into computer logic (in this case. Sometimes there is just bias).. --@kayaba Quote
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