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Posted

In a nutshell, the researchers used the detection of gravity waves to triangulate to where the waves came from.  Within seconds came light from the same source. 

 

For certain the light was pointing back to the location of the emission point.  If the detectors were able to triangulate back to the same position in space, then the gravity waves did not tug the detectors toward the location of the emitting object, but toward the location where the emitter was at the time of emission.  Neither the light nor the gravity waves provide any information about where the emitting object has moved to at the time of observation.

 

Therefore, is the force of gravity shared between two objects delayed by the propagation of the gravity waves?  If so, the two objects are not actually pulling on each other.  The waves are not attached to the emitting objects. 

 

So, my first confusion is:  Even if the reaction is just a matter of space being warped, how do two objects dealing with a delayed exchange of energy obtain a stable and sustainable orbit?

 

My second is:  Could an object appear to be getting pulled toward nothing at all?  It could be getting pulled toward a position where a gravity emitter used to be.

 

(I'm sorry I was not clear, and maybe I am still not.  I deeply appreciate your patience.)

  • 2 weeks later...
Posted (edited)

I really cannot follow what you are saying at all.

 

Thanks for your time. You made me to feel like my thinking and my question are off the wall, but have discovered my question is very valid.  It's probably my ability to express it that's lacking.  I think I found the help I was looking for elsewhere, or at least pointing me in the right direction. Even so, I am grateful for whatever time you gave me.

 

This is what I found ...

 

 

"Want to know something that’s kind of messed up? If that was the only thing that was different from Newtonian gravity, Einstein’s theory would be wrong. The predictions that we’d get for planetary orbits, based on where objects like the Sun and the other planets were 8+ minutes ago [my question exactly] (or whatever the light-travel time for the planet in question was) are different enough from even observations a century ago that General Relativity would have been determined to be false right away. This effect on its own demanded that, if Newton’s theory was right, the speed of gravity be at least 20 billion times faster than the speed of light!

But there is another piece to the puzzle.

The Earth, since it’s also moving, kind of “rides” over the ripples traveling through space, so that it comes down in a different spot from where it was lifted up. It looks like we have two effects going on: each object’s velocity affects how it experiences gravity, and so do the changes that occur in gravitational fields.

 
What’s amazing is that the changes in the gravitational field felt by a finite speed of gravity and the effects of velocity-dependent interactions cancel almost exactly! The inexactness of the cancellation is what allows us to determine, observationally, if Newton’s “infinite speed of gravity” model or Einstein’s “speed of gravity = speed of light” model matches with our Universe."
Edited by RodneyBelieves

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