DRACO Posted June 21, 2020 Report Posted June 21, 2020 In case of right angled triangles, C^2 = A^2 +B^2 - 2AB cos(Ψ) is shortened to C^2 = A^2 +B^2 because the cosine of the angle "Ψ" which is 90° is equal to 0. But how is its cosine equal to 0. Quote
OceanBreeze Posted June 21, 2020 Report Posted June 21, 2020 Try using the unit circle and it will make sense. Quote
sluggo Posted June 22, 2020 Report Posted June 22, 2020 Draco; The Pythagorean theorem states C^2 = A^2 +B^2. Where did the other term come from? Quote
OceanBreeze Posted June 22, 2020 Report Posted June 22, 2020 Draco; The Pythagorean theorem statesC^2 = A^2 +B^2.Where did the other term come from? The additional term comes from the Law of Cosines. Pythagoras Theorem:(only for Right-Angled Triangles)a2 + b2 = c2Law of Cosines:(for all triangles)a2 + b2 − 2ab cos© = c2 The Pythagorean theorem is a particular case of that law. Quote
sluggo Posted June 23, 2020 Report Posted June 23, 2020 The additional term comes from the Law of Cosines. Pythagoras Theorem:(only for Right-Angled Triangles)a2 + b2 = c2Law of Cosines:(for all triangles)a2 + b2 − 2ab cos© = c2 The Pythagorean theorem is a particular case of that law.Thanks. Quote
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