Perspicacious Posted September 27, 2005 Report Posted September 27, 2005 The last paragraph of http://arxiv.org/PS_cache/physics/pdf/0006/0006039.pdf states this conclusion: Thus in Friedmann–Lemaıtre universes, (i) the expansion of the universe and (ii) the existence of a non–trivial topology for the constant time hypersurfaces both break the Poincare invariance and single out the same “privileged” inertial observer who will age more quickly than any other twin: the one comoving with the cosmic fluid – although aging more quickly than all her travelling sisters may be not a real privilege! See these references also: http://physics.ucr.edu/Active/Abs/abstract-13-NOV-97.htmlhttp://www.everythingimportant.org/viewtopic.php?t=79http://cornell.mirror.aps.org/abstract/PRD/v8/i6/p1662_1http://arxiv.org/PS_cache/gr-qc/pdf/0101/0101014.pdfhttp://arxiv.org/PS_cache/gr-qc/pdf/0503/0503070.pdfhttp://www.everythingimportant.org/viewtopic.php?t=605http://www.everythingimportant.org/relativity/simultaneity.htm I'm delighted that common sense is finally being recognized in the physics community. When do you think it will be realized that an absolute time order precludes the possibility of anything falling into a black hole? Quote
Perspicacious Posted October 2, 2005 Author Report Posted October 2, 2005 How are you going to evade the equation for proper time in a gravitational field being directly comparable with the topologically distinguished, universally applicable background time that characterizes spatially compact spacetime? Take the spacetime cylinder for example. All observers agree on the simultaneity of events. Clock rates everywhere, in this instance, are all physically tied together. Why should a global sense to the order of all spacetime events for all observers miraculously disappear in a spatially compact universe if we were to add the extremely faint gravitational field of an electron to it? Let the radius of the electron shrink to zero. At what step in the limiting process does the universally agreed upon cosmic everywhere present "now" suddenly disappear? Quote
HydrogenBond Posted October 3, 2005 Report Posted October 3, 2005 This is kind of interesting in that an universe expansion scenario stemming from a point, i.e., big bang, occurred when there was only highly time dilated relativistic reference within the universe. The inertial reference from which we calculate the evolutionary age of the universe, did not exist near the beginning. Maybe the time calculations of the universe should use the majority space-time reference of the universe at that point in evolultion. Maybe the first day's ride on the primordial expansion reference may have used up a say million years of inertial time. This would be an interesting calculation. Quote
Qfwfq Posted October 3, 2005 Report Posted October 3, 2005 I disagree that this argument means a privileged coordinate frame would be defined. Why would it have to be the one comoving with the cosmic fluid anyway? At the most certain cosmological models could make the twin paradox unresolvable, although from a rather formal pov, and it might even be an argument against these models but certainly not against the principle of relativity. Quote
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