Violation of F=ma

[sciman55]

Is it totally true, that when Newton's second law (f=ma) is violated, a heavier object when pushed would accelerate at the same rate as a lighter object with the same force? Now don't get me wrong, I do know that physical laws cannot be violated.

[C1ay]

Is it totally true, that when Newton's second law (f=ma) is violated, a heavier object when pushed would accelerate at the same rate as a lighter object with the same force? Now don't get me wrong, I do know that physical laws cannot be violated.

No, it's not true. Try accelerating a BB with 1 pound of force and then try accelerating a train with that same pound of force. You'll find that the BB accelerates easily while your train remains stationary...

[Vicarious]

I erased my post. What are you asking? If it were possible to violate the law, then the situation you described would be a violation. Yes, this is true. I don't understand your question.

[softdragonz]

Hi Friend

actually nothing can be said.....

if F=ma is violated, u cant come to a conclusion that force is independent of mass.

a heavier object when pushed would accelerate at the same rate as a lighter object with the same force only when force is independent of mass.

 

But even if F=ma is violated, there might be some other form in which force is related to mass :hihi:

[UncleAl]

If you decouple gravitational and inertial mass, then anomalous accelerations of one by applying acceleration of the other will obtain. The Equivalence Principle (EP) states that all local centers of mass vacuum free fall identically - that inertial and gravitational mass are fundamentally indistinguishable. The EP is only a postulate. Empirical falsification would kill it. Theories of gravitation can postulate the EP (Galileo, Newton, Einstein), ignore it (Weitzenböck), or cover butt in both directions (Cartan; String theory).

 

Is the EP true? Can inertial and gravitational masses be decoupled? Not by chemical composition, gravitational binding energy (Nordtvedt effect), magnetism, physical spin, superconductivity...

 

http://www.mazepath.com/uncleal/eotvos.htm#b22

http://www.aip.org/pnu/2006/775.html

 

... or by hyper-bound, hyper-spinning, hyper-magnetized, superconducting neutronium (orbits of binary pulsars),

 

http://relativity.livingreviews.org/Articles/lrr-2005-7/index.html

 

However, we have no idea if a right hand falls identically to a left hand. We do not know if the EP has a parity violation. We do not know if a single crystal solid sphere of space group P3(1)21 quartz (right-handed screw axes) falls identically to a macroscopically identical one of space group P3(2)21 quartz (left-handed screw axes) within current experimental sensitivity of one part in ten trillion difference/average, 10^(-13),

 

http://www.mazepath.com/uncleal/qz3.pdf

 

Somebody should look. An EP violation exceeding 10^(-10) difference/average is prohibited by other observations.

[betrayer_of_hope]

F=ma is basically just an approximation. You have to include the lorentz factor. So I'm not sure if it's valid to ask whether it's possible for it to be violated.