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Posted

While browsing for something (have no idea what it was...) I happened to come across this so-called "proof" of Fermat's Last Theorem treating the Binomial Theorem as an infinite series and some apparently new theorem discovered by this person. However, I am, by no means, a mathematician, and it should most certainly be scrutinized by others much versed in this subject.

 

 

Fermat's Last Theorem is Solved

Posted

perhaps i misunderstand all of it...but...look at statement 2:

 

(1+x) exp(a) (i don't know how to get exponents on here,

that's (1+x) to the power a....)

 

which he equates to a sum (which i cannot read...not useful...what is n here?)

 

he states that the sum diverges if x>1 and a is not an integer. but if x=3, and a=1/2,

 

(1+x)exp(a) = (1+3)exp(1/2) = the square root of 4 = 2, and we shouldn't have any convergence problems.

 

[ his use of the binomial theorem is perhaps a little careless -

 

(1 + x) exp(n) = Sum (for i=0 to n) C(n,i) x exp(i)

 

this is fine when n is a positive integer and C(n,i) = n!/i!(n-i)!,

but for non-integral n, life becomes more difficult, although not impossible. ]

 

the proof may still be fine, but i stopped....

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