Nootropic Posted January 14, 2007 Report Posted January 14, 2007 While browsing for something (have no idea what it was...) I happened to come across this so-called "proof" of Fermat's Last Theorem treating the Binomial Theorem as an infinite series and some apparently new theorem discovered by this person. However, I am, by no means, a mathematician, and it should most certainly be scrutinized by others much versed in this subject. Fermat's Last Theorem is Solved Quote
snark1100 Posted January 20, 2007 Report Posted January 20, 2007 perhaps i misunderstand all of it...but...look at statement 2: (1+x) exp(a) (i don't know how to get exponents on here, that's (1+x) to the power a....) which he equates to a sum (which i cannot read...not useful...what is n here?) he states that the sum diverges if x>1 and a is not an integer. but if x=3, and a=1/2, (1+x)exp(a) = (1+3)exp(1/2) = the square root of 4 = 2, and we shouldn't have any convergence problems. [ his use of the binomial theorem is perhaps a little careless - (1 + x) exp(n) = Sum (for i=0 to n) C(n,i) x exp(i) this is fine when n is a positive integer and C(n,i) = n!/i!(n-i)!,but for non-integral n, life becomes more difficult, although not impossible. ] the proof may still be fine, but i stopped.... Quote
Turtle Posted January 22, 2007 Report Posted January 22, 2007 I wouldn't hold my breath for the peer review of this guy's work. I would however read it in the unlikely event it ever shows up. :note: :beer: Quote
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